(New Version) Passleader Real EMC E20-326 Exam Questions Help You Passing Exam Easily (1-20)

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NEW QUESTION 1
Which host-based performance tool should be used to gather data for Microsoft Windows systems?

A.    PERFMON
B.    SAR
C.    IOSTAT
D.    NAR

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
Which action is part of the analysis and design of a synchronous data protection solution for a Symmetrix VMAX implementation?

A.    Use STP Navigator to examine the BTP data and determine if the data is valid for further analysis.
B.    Use Performance Analyzer and EMC Control Center repository data to determine the peak data period and bandwidth required.
C.    Use Symmetrix Performance Analyzer to determine the peak data requirement based on STP data collected from the source array for a 24 hour sample period.
D.    Use Change Tracker to determine the bandwidth required from the DELTA data set for a given interval.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
A customer plans to migrate mainframe and UNIX hosts from another vendor’s array to an EMC Symmetrix. You are responsible for the design of the VMAX 20K solution that is to be replicated to a metropolitan bunker site. There is no tolerance for data loss. Which input data sets do you need for a BCSD design of the replication solution?

A.    CMF/SMF data for mainframe hosts SAR data for HP-UX hosts
B.    SMF/TPF for mainframe hosts SAR data for AIX hosts
C.    CMF/TPF data for mainframe hosts SAR data for Linux hosts
D.    SMF/TPF data for mainframe hosts IOSTAT data for AIX hosts

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
By default, how much storage is allocated when a thin device is bound to a pool?

A.    1 extent
B.    1 track
C.    12 extents
D.    64 tracks

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5
Which environment type is thin provisioning friendly?

A.    Document and media repositories
B.    File systems that append data instead of reusing free space
C.    Utilities that copy “raw” data such as dd in UNIX
D.    Administrative operations such as bad block detection

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
A customer is using a Symmetrix VMAX and FAST DP. They are using striped meta devices to overcome the device size limit of a single device. What happens when FAST determines “hot spots” and starts moving these to other disks?

A.    The entire meta device is moved to another disk group
B.    Only the meta members containing the hot spots are moved to another disk group
C.    Only the extents that contain the hot spots are moved to another disk group
D.    Only the tracks that contain the hot spots are moved to another disk group

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
Which workload is an ideal candidate for FAST VP?

A.    Skewed
B.    Uniform
C.    Static
D.    Concurrent

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8
A customer has implemented a Symmetrix VMAX storage array with FAST VP as a consolidation target for four older storage systems. The storage array is running the current target Enginuity 5875 code. Pool allocation warning levels are set for 65% for the Fibre Channel pool. If all data migrated to the array is bound to the Fibre Channel pool, how should the configuration of the pool reserve capacity be set?

A.    1% EFD, 35% FC, 1% SATA
B.    10% EFD, 10% FC, 10% SATA
C.    35% EFD, 35% FC, 35% SATA
D.    90% EFD, 90% FC, 90% SATA

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9
A customer is running an application on older storage equipment that is about to be replaced. During refresh planning, the skew for the application is determined to be 98/2. Which default policy from Tier Advisor would be applicable for this workload?

A.    2% EFD, 10% FC, 100% SATA
B.    3% EFD, 0% FC, 97% SATA
C.    5% EFD, 0% FC, 95% SATA
D.    98% EFD, 2% FC, 100% SATA

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
A customer has requested multiple design solutions for their new FAST-enabled Symmetrix VMAX storage. You have the performance files and symapi_db.bin files for the three source DMX arrays. Which type of analysis should be created with Tier Advisor to respond to the customer’s request?

A.    “What-if” cost-benefit
B.    Peak period I/O
C.    Wide period I/O
D.    Tiered and non-tiered

Answer: A


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NEW QUESTION 11
The NAR file on a source CLARiiON array is 12 hours of 600 second intervals. You require a minimum of 20 intervals of complete data. How many 30-minute trace files will need to be collected from the CLARiiON for a Tier Advisor analysis?

A.    4
B.    5
C.    6
D.    7

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
The NAR file on a source CLARiiON array is 12 hours of 300 second intervals. You require a minimum of 30 intervals of complete data. How many 30-minute trace files will need to be collected from the CLARiiON for a Tier Advisor analysis?

A.    4
B.    5
C.    6
D.    7

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13
A customer plans to aggregate a number of CLARiiONs to a Symmetrix VMAX with FAST VP. Which data collection requirements are recommended for a Tier Advisor analysis?

A.    Minimum 5 hour NAR and trace data collection with both NAR and trace data collected at 2 minute intervals.
B.    Trace data for 30 minutes each hour of NAR capture.Minimum 8 hour NAR data collection at 10 minute intervals for coarse data analysis.
C.    Trace data at 1 minute intervals for detailed peak data capture.Maximum 24 hour NAR and trace capture at default 10 minute intervals to enable peak analysis on a daily basis.
D.    Minimum 5 day NAR with default data collection interval of 10 minutes.Partial trace data for 30 minutes each hour of NAR capture.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 14
What is a characteristic of the FAST policy as defined by the analysis done by Tier Advisor?

A.    Tier Advisor policy elements are set statically and sum to an aggregate of 100%
B.    Tier Advisor policy is dynamic and applies directly to the FAST policy to be set on the Symmetrix
C.    Tier Advisor sets the VP policy statically for the baseline only; the policy must be adjusted manually for each defined policy
D.    Tier Advisor and FAST VP policies both allow 100% allocation per tier

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 15
What is a Capacity Available for Active Replication (CAAR) consideration when using TimeFinder on a Symmetrix VMAX?

A.    TimeFinder VP Snap requires 2X protection slots for source and 1X protection slots for up to 16 targets
B.    TimeFinder/Snap requires protection slots for both source and target
C.    TimeFinder/Snap source requires 2X the protection slots of the target
D.    TimeFinder VP Snap requires 2X protection slots for both source and target for up to 32 targets

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16
Which two tools should be used to compute the Capacity Available for Active Replication (CAAR)?

A.    SymmMerge and Direct Express (Channel Express)
B.    SymmMerge and Tier Advisor
C.    BCSD and Direct Express (Channel Express)
D.    BCSD and Tier Advisor

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 17
When does the ACOFW behavior apply in a TimeFinder/Snap environment?

A.    During writes to protected tracks on the source device
B.    During writes to protected tracks on the virtual device
C.    During all writes to the source device
D.    During all writes to the virtual device

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18
A TimeFinder/Clone session is created using the Copy option. When will data be copied?

A.    As soon as the session is activated
B.    On a write to a protected track on the source
C.    On every write to a track on the source
D.    As soon as the session state reaches Copy in Progress

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19
A customer wants data from a source to be copied to its TimeFinder/Clone target as soon as the session is created. Which option needs to be used when creating the TimeFinder/Clone session?

A.    precopy
B.    copy
C.    establish
D.    differential

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 20
When using Clone Emulation, which TimeFinder/Clone command represents the symmir establish command?

A.    symclone create -precopy -differential
B.    symclone create -precopy -incremental
C.    symclone establish -copy
D.    symclone activate -copy

Answer: A


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